Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 00:36
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why is the word "democracy" not in the preamble of the US Constitution?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Backstage Report On WWE Raw Talent Being Discussed For Worlds Collide Appearance - Wrestling Inc.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.